I believe you're missing the salient point of "relative to what". Namely, male resources are to women as female fertility is to men. That they do not seek the exact same element in their counterparts is NOT illustrative that they do not seek "the same thing".
They're both "trading up", however you split it. It's simply WHAT they're trading up for which differs by the subject. So, it's still hypergamy in either scenario. Hypergamy doesn't stipulate that what one seeks must be strength or protection. It's just "trading up". The peahen chooses the peacock with the most illustrious feathers because he demonstrates that he is SO capable with his detrimental and costly feathers that he can survive in spite on this handicapping attribute; the peacock is offering survival guarantee, the peahen is offering fertility. If there wasn't a biological constant in what the sexes desired from each other, but the hypergamous drive still remained, then we'd see the same thing split across all individuals. An individual who seeks a more eloquent speaker would seek that out in his/her mate, and their counterpart might be one who embodies these qualities, yet THEY seek out one with long and sturdy hair and they themselves don't care about speech skills... just throwing out random elements to illustrate the point, not that these are actual sexual selectors. Regardless of what one side pursues, both sides are "trading up".
That being said, I still consider the topic question to be moot. Just because both sexes are hypergamous doesn't mean we can't call women hypergamous. They are. That's like saying just because we all get hungry we shouldn't say that some people are going hungry. That kinda misses the point of descriptive explanations, don't you think?