Hello everyone,
This is my first post here, but I have been watching Stefan for the past 6 months or so--fascinating stuff!
Anyways, I've been learning about economics this year during my free time. I started first with Thomas Sowell's "Basic Economics" and now am most of the way through Murray Rothbard's "Man, Economy, and State." Both books have been quite enlightening (particularly the latter). My perspective of the world has indeed shifted.
That said, it is my understanding that in the free market, whenever a there is a desire that is inadequately met, entrepreneurs will move in to that market in search of greater profits, meeting that desire. So this brings me to my question, why is it that certain people are uninsurable? My initial thought was that perhaps there are some regulations in place that make insuring a certain risk bracket unprofitable. Upon further consideration though, it occurred to me that it may be that there indeed are not enough people who fall in the "uninsurable" category who would be willing to pay the increased premiums that would be required, thus insurance companies simply stopped offering such a service. The more I think about it, though, the more that last possibility seems... well, not very possible.
Does anyone have an explanation?Thanks! Oh, and this question of the uninsurable is really targeted for pre ACA--we all know that the ACA will solve all of this problems. (Dang I couldn't say it with a straight face.)