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CptArcher

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  1. Did Socrates truly say that people ought to obey the State? Or were his name and 'ideas' merely co-opted by the State after his death?
  2. How do you conclude that his actions beg that question, without you presupposing his actions result from free will?
  3. I think I understand your point. Doesn't it beg the question to argue that "determinism is a performative contradiction?" Such an argument pre-supposes that actions are willed. Surely the determinist would reject an argument that presumes that actions result from free will. If you try to tell a determinist "you are using free will to argue against free will" they will say "How do you know I am using free will? you have not proven any such thing - I believe that everything I am saying to you is determined." Therefore, I don't think the performative negation argument discredits determinism, since it begs the question. However, there is lots of recent science increasingly giving more evidence that we do in fact have free will. Without the evidence, I am not sure it is possible to discredit determinism exclusively from first principles.
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