"UK literacy rates have barely improved since 1870".
"Government education programs in the US have had almost no effect on literacy rates"
I have heard several libertarians, including Stef make such claims but I can find very little evidence to support them. What are these sorts of claims based on - census data?
From what I have discovered so far, it may be claimed that government intervention in education had very little effect on the TREND for improved literacy; the data contains no sudden pick-up.
It is also possible to compare modern functional literacy (ability to engage in complex written communication) with the most basic ability to write your own name on a marriage certificate 150 years ago, but this is hardly a fair comparison.
As sombody who advocates the separation of state and education, I want to be able to shout these claims from the rooftops - but only if they are true.
Can anybody shed some light on where the supporting data comes from?