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  1. "UK literacy rates have barely improved since 1870". "Government education programs in the US have had almost no effect on literacy rates" I have heard several libertarians, including Stef make such claims but I can find very little evidence to support them. What are these sorts of claims based on - census data? From what I have discovered so far, it may be claimed that government intervention in education had very little effect on the TREND for improved literacy; the data contains no sudden pick-up. It is also possible to compare modern functional literacy (ability to engage in complex written communication) with the most basic ability to write your own name on a marriage certificate 150 years ago, but this is hardly a fair comparison. As sombody who advocates the separation of state and education, I want to be able to shout these claims from the rooftops - but only if they are true. Can anybody shed some light on where the supporting data comes from?
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