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Hi everyone, so I was doing a little research into IQ and the Flynn effect and I'm stumped myself upon a problem, perhaps someone here has an answer? So the Flynn effect is the trend in increasing average IQ with time (presumably because of increasing living standards, nutrition and more peaceful parenting). Here is a link to some musing on the Flynn effect ending Vs. Moore's law http://earlywarn.blogspot.co.uk/2010/05/moores-law-vs-flynn-effect.html Which refrences the following paper The end of the Flynn effect? http://www.iapsych.com/iqmr/fe/LinkedDocuments/Sundet2004.pdf Which produces the following trend for IQ of Norwegian conscripts vs time This is average IQ of conscripts vs 20xx year So here is where I am stumped. Given that the average IQ of Norwegian conscripts is >100 and said IQ is representative of the population at large and it has been over 100 for over 60 years how is it possible that the average IQ of Norway today is only 100?
