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I have a friend who labels himself an anarcho-communist. He doesn't believe in private property and, one believer in a stateless society to another, asks me what would happen to all the private property if the state fell and a stateless society emerged. He asks that question because he thinks that, assuming private property can be legitimate, none of today's private property is legitimate because of government interfering with private property. The exchange of private property has, for as long as governments have existed, been interfered with by government; government has taxed and regulated private property and has indirectly affected the trade of private property through the effects of its policies (eg. government orders construction of highway -> people buy land next to highway to set up a motel). Over hundreds (eg. US) or thousands (eg. UK) of years, government has steered the exchange of private property in directions that it would not have gone without government interference. So private property today would not be owned by the same people if it weren't for the use of violence. Therefore, today's private property is all illegitimately owned. Question 1) "Therefore, today's private property is all illegitimately owned." - Do you agree? If yes, then Question 2) Once a stateless society emerges, who owns what? Do we abandon all current ownerships and collect private property in a giant free-for-all? Sorry, by "legitimate", I mean non-aggressively, morally sound etc., nothing to do with the law. Thanks, Andy