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  1. Siegfried von Walheim
    I was typing up a reply. Here is an excerpt. Does this make logical sense? I am saying that X can be objectively measure, but whether or not it is of any value is subjective, and therefore X is subjective. Is X subjective? Like I might not value the theory of relativity (because I am entirely ignorant of it) yet I'm sure (?) it can be measured. If it can be measured and clearly defined, it's objective, right? It's the value part only that's subjective, right?
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