Subsidiarity Posted February 14, 2013 Posted February 14, 2013 This is a half baked frame work for property and other 'rights'. Perhaps somebody can translate it into a non-rights based argument. Only individuals consume. No resource may be consumed by more than one individual. All justly consumed resources are consumed by right. If an individual justly exclusively consumes the resource then he had the exclusive right to consume that resources. You can use the same process for all owned property making the harmony or rights, including self ownship. That is exclusive consumption is more foundational than self ownership. Thoughts? Anyone?
Magnus Posted February 14, 2013 Posted February 14, 2013 The terminology derived from Roman law was "use," which I suppose would encompass consumption. One refinement of that concept among today's libertarian and anarchist legal writers is "rivalrous" uses -- any manipulation or displacement of objects that rivals, or conflicts, with other people's uses of their objects. That may be similar, but broader, than uses that constitute consumption.
Subsidiarity Posted February 14, 2013 Author Posted February 14, 2013 I think of consumption essentially as the final use. A resource may be used by different individuals over time. Rather than trying to talk about a resource at one time, it might be simpler to talk of final use or consumption, but the argument can be made both ways.
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