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Poverty was being solved in the US until the welfare state?


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I was looking for that too, but couldn't find one. Odds are it was because the government wasn't recording poverty before then in any helpful kind of way, but that is just a guess. I'm sure someone made a dissertation on poverty for all of American history or something, but I wouldn't know where to find that.

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It would be interesting to see if the graph reflects a moving target for poverty.  If they keep expanding the definition of poverty it could cause the graph to flatline or change direction over time.

 

Also, if they started defining poverty as persistently the bottom 15% of the population, poverty would never be solved even if the poorest person had every thing they ever wanted.

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Guest darkskyabove

Thanks, how was it measured?

The Welfare State was instituted in the 1930s in the US so this graph could be used to argue the Welfare State was working to reduce poverty up until the 60s

 

The mid 40s up until then looked pretty good

 

Depends on how you are defining "welfare state". The standard definition applies to government policies beginning with Lyndon Johnson's "Great Society" epoch, and continuing to expand into the present. Prior to the 60s I don't believe there existed any government welfare program in the U.S. for citizens. Corporate welfare programs were rampant, but well-camoflauged from the view of most people.

 

The major "social program" of note from the 30s is Social Security. Though it could now be described as a form of welfare (it is, definitely, income redistribution), the original format was more like a government-run retirement account.

 

I would recommend doing some research before making the claim you presented. Saying that the "welfare state" began in the 30s is liable to result in blank stares, at best, and hostile references to "fact checking", at worst.

 

If your premise is correct (welfare state began in the 30s), it would indeed bear re-examining the causes of any drop in poverty, but I believe you will find the premise to be incorrect.

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Guest darkskyabove

@pretzelogik: Excellent observation! Not only is the premise of when poverty may, or may not have, changed subject to debate, one is left with explaining why their version of poverty is universal.

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