Guest Gee Posted March 14, 2016 Posted March 14, 2016 Hi everyone, so I was doing a little research into IQ and the Flynn effect and I'm stumped myself upon a problem, perhaps someone here has an answer? So the Flynn effect is the trend in increasing average IQ with time (presumably because of increasing living standards, nutrition and more peaceful parenting). Here is a link to some musing on the Flynn effect ending Vs. Moore's law http://earlywarn.blogspot.co.uk/2010/05/moores-law-vs-flynn-effect.html Which refrences the following paper The end of the Flynn effect? http://www.iapsych.com/iqmr/fe/LinkedDocuments/Sundet2004.pdf Which produces the following trend for IQ of Norwegian conscripts vs time This is average IQ of conscripts vs 20xx year So here is where I am stumped. Given that the average IQ of Norwegian conscripts is >100 and said IQ is representative of the population at large and it has been over 100 for over 60 years how is it possible that the average IQ of Norway today is only 100?
rosencrantz Posted March 14, 2016 Posted March 14, 2016 Because IQ is not an absolute number, it is measured relative to a population. This means that the average IQ today by definition has to be 100 for a standard population. Compared to previous tests, the average IQ now can translate to a higher IQ back then (the Flynn effect).
Guest Gee Posted March 14, 2016 Posted March 14, 2016 Because IQ is not an absolute number, it is measured relative to a population. This means that the average IQ today by definition has to be 100 for a standard population. Compared to previous tests, the average IQ now can translate to a higher IQ back then (the Flynn effect). Thanks rosencrantz, I didn't know that.
Jer Posted March 14, 2016 Posted March 14, 2016 The US military excludes the lowest IQ people, I'd assume it's the same in Norway.
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