RichardY Posted March 21, 2016 Posted March 21, 2016 Is Platonic Love Possible? Can someone love something without any action merely a claim to love, is this more an innate preference or temporary infatuation. If I were to say I love music can this be an accurate statement or an expression of preference. Can a person love profit from violation of the NAP and then claim to love the person effected by the violation. For love to be possible must it be "rational" and reciprocal, action and preference, or is, to love is to value as Ayn Rand put it. 1
Mister Mister Posted March 21, 2016 Posted March 21, 2016 If you mean can you love another person without romantic/sexual feelings, then of course the answer is yes, as in love between family or friends. "Can someone love something without any action merely a claim to love, is this more an innate preference or temporary infatuation." Sorry I don't understand this sentence, can you restate it more clearly? As in love of inanimate objects or concepts, like "I love jazz", "I love this coffee cup", "I love doughnuts", I suppose that's a bit different use of the word.
RichardY Posted March 23, 2016 Author Posted March 23, 2016 Define Love: Not a biological preference for food, sound or an attractive mate, which I take for a biological given and not a choice to feel a particular way, does a black widow spider or amoeba love? So in order to love you must be able to choose between different options and anticipate into the future. In order to anticipate into the future there must be empirical information. So therefore love must involve some form of action or given and not be just a claim given by someone (which would mean the spiritual or feeling in Platonic Love to be incorrect). The action part I guess could involve doing something to benefit someones future welfare.
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