aviet Posted July 2, 2016 Posted July 2, 2016 I think I heard the title stated on FDR, as well as somewhere else, but I was not able to find the source of the statement. After some searching, I came across this:http://www.cdc.gov/nchs/nsfg/key_statistics/n.htmWhich states that the average number of partners for a given demographic is 6.6 for men and 4.3 for women. Men appear to be little changed over time, whereas women appear to be becoming more promiscuous.I am not versed in maths, but this seems that it may be more like 40% of men are having sex with 60% of the women.Interpretations? Insights?
Somewhere Posted July 2, 2016 Posted July 2, 2016 There may be a tendency for men to overreport and women to underreport, but assuming those figures are correct, all you can infer from them is that the female distribution of number of partners is more skewed (a minority of women having a relatively large number of partners) than the male distribution is. As you suggest, the male distribution is likely also skewed, but those figures tell you nothing about that. The figures are of course medians rather than means; the mean number of partners is the same for both sexes, assuming a closed heterosexual population for simplicity.
aviet Posted July 2, 2016 Author Posted July 2, 2016 There may be a tendency for men to overreport and women to underreport, but assuming those figures are correct, all you can infer from them is that the female distribution of number of partners is more skewed (a minority of women having a relatively large number of partners) than the male distribution is. As you suggest, the male distribution is likely also skewed, but those figures tell you nothing about that. I did think this. I've not been able to find better data as per the claim though.
Libertus Posted July 2, 2016 Posted July 2, 2016 That doesn't follow at all. The average number of 6.6 per men could mean 10 men bedding 6.6 women each, or it could mean 1 guy bedding 66 and 9 guys being virgins. 1
Will Torbald Posted July 2, 2016 Posted July 2, 2016 I thought that the stat was that the top 80% of women prefer-want-pursue the top top 20% of men - but not necessarily that the top 20 of men are sleeping with them. It's not the same thing in practice.
aviet Posted July 2, 2016 Author Posted July 2, 2016 I thought that the stat was that the top 80% of women prefer-want-pursue the top top 20% of men - but not necessarily that the top 20 of men are sleeping with them. It's not the same thing in practice. Either way, I was not able to find anything to substantiate the claim.
Will Torbald Posted July 2, 2016 Posted July 2, 2016 Either way, I was not able to find anything to substantiate the claim. I didn't see it as a hard fact, but as a psychological theorem based on female hypergamy and the ratio of alpha/beta men in the market. Alpha women want alphas, but beta women also do, so it follows that the proportion would be skewered.
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