fstearns1 Posted December 29, 2017 Posted December 29, 2017 Stefan refers to ‘regression to the mean’ as if it were a biological phenomenon. Please refer to page 357 of ‘The Bell Curve’ to disabuse yourself of that notion.
barn Posted December 29, 2017 Posted December 29, 2017 Hello @fstearns1 Well, there's... that (see. Parent-offspring regression) Barnsley p.s. (isn't particularly important, though speaks about your views how you chose the language... Countering an effect is only possible if it exists... So, yeah. Your ask is not valid.)
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